The comparison might be made that where the state or an individual has incurred a loss, the offender or tortfeasor must either pay a fine or a tort judgement, and fines or restitution aren't regarded as forms of stealing, and that, by analogy, execution similarly therefore is not murder. A counterargument to this might be that with fines and tort judgments, there is an actual transfer of value, to restore somewhat the party that incurred the loss to status quo ante. But with execution, there is no actual transfer of value. This then is what distinguishes executions from fines and tort judgments.
I am supposed to be doing language immersion. I forgot.
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